Gislef
April 15, 2013, 4:32am
1
"The first time Spite would be dealt damage each turn, reduce that damage by H-2."
What happens if the first instance of damage that turn is Irreducible?
a) It count as the PL602's first use, and all subsequent damage is not reduced by PL602?
b) PL602 has no effect and thus it isn't used for "the first time", and it reduces the subsequent reducible attack?
Ronway
April 15, 2013, 4:35am
2
Option a would be correct. So Omni-X if he had the Focus Plasma Cannon in play before and other component, the rest would still do it's base damage.
Option A is correct. This does work both ways. Wraith's power would trigger on irreducible damage but have no effect
Man, I LOVE it when the rule that screws you over in turn screws over a villain. It speaks to my sense of the fundamental fairness of the universe.
(You say that so often. I wonder what your basis for comparison is?)
Ronway
April 15, 2013, 2:16pm
5
Oh wow... I guess that is what I get for typing while tired... I wonder why I retrpyed option a rather than typing correct.
Gislef
April 15, 2013, 2:48pm
7
Thanks for the answers, everyone! We played it right.
dragon2439:
What do you mean?
I hate it when wraith's stealth gets negated by irreducible damage, but the fact that the exact same rule can get you over the PL602 problem makes me happy.
Spite's "additional damage" and "reduced damage" drug effects always confuse me when he flips.
basically, they cancel each other out for H=3, but he takes -1 damage with H=4 and -2 damage with H=5. Unless something makes him take damage before he flips somehow.